Top Document: soc.culture.jewish FAQ: Worship, Conversion, Intermarriage (5/12) Previous Document: Question 11.4.1: Practices Towards Others: Does Judaism permit slavery? Next Document: Question 11.4.3: Practices Towards Others: Is it permitted for a Jew to sell Christian objects? See reader questions & answers on this topic! - Help others by sharing your knowledge Answer: The Written Law does, in Exodus 21:24 demand an "eye for an eye" (Exodus 21:24). However, the Oral Law explains that the verse must be understood as requiring monetary compensation: the value of an eye is what must be paid. Note that the Written Law does NOT imply "lex talionis" - gouging out the perpetrator's eye as retaliatory punishment. Gandhi and many others misunderstood this verse. User Contributions:Top Document: soc.culture.jewish FAQ: Worship, Conversion, Intermarriage (5/12) Previous Document: Question 11.4.1: Practices Towards Others: Does Judaism permit slavery? Next Document: Question 11.4.3: Practices Towards Others: Is it permitted for a Jew to sell Christian objects? Single Page [ Usenet FAQs | Web FAQs | Documents | RFC Index ] Send corrections/additions to the FAQ Maintainer: SCJ FAQ Maintainer <maintainer@scjfaq.org>
Last Update March 27 2014 @ 02:11 PM
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