Search the FAQ Archives

3 - A - B - C - D - E - F - G - H - I - J - K - L - M
N - O - P - Q - R - S - T - U - V - W - X - Y - Z - Internet FAQ Archives

Invariant Galilean Transformations On All Laws
Section - 12. But Isn't (x'-x.c')=(x-x.c) a Tautology?

( Single Page )
[ Usenet FAQs | Web FAQs | Documents | RFC Index | Airports ]

Top Document: Invariant Galilean Transformations On All Laws
Previous Document: 11. But Doesn't (x'-x.c+vt) Prove The Transformation Time Dependent?
Next Document: 13. But Isn't (x'-x.c')=(x-x.c) Almost the Definition of a Linear Transform?
See reader questions & answers on this topic! - Help others by sharing your knowledge
My dictionary relates 'tautology' to needless repetition. 

That's another form of the x.c' <> x.c-vt idiocy. 

The repetition involved is the vt transformation term.
Apply the -vt term to the x term, and it is needless 
repetition to apply it anywhere again? The 'again' is
to the x.c term.  The x.c' = x.c crackpot idiocy.

The repetition of the vt terms is required by the presence
of two x values to be transformed.

Be sure to note the next section.

User Contributions:

Comment about this article, ask questions, or add new information about this topic: