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[sci.astro] General (Astronomy Frequently Asked Questions) (2/9)
Section - B.05 What's the difference between astronomy and astrology?

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Top Document: [sci.astro] General (Astronomy Frequently Asked Questions) (2/9)
Previous Document: B.04 What is the resolution of a telescope?
Next Document: B.06 Is there scientific evidence for/against astrology?
See reader questions & answers on this topic! - Help others by sharing your knowledge
Although astronomy and astrology are historically related and many
individuals were interested in both, there is today no connection
between the two.  Hence two different USENET newsgroups exist:
sci.astro (for the former) and alt.astrology (for the latter).  DO NOT
CONFUSE THEM.

Astronomy is based on the laws of physics (and therefore mathematics)
and aims at describing what is happening to the universe based on what
we observe today.  Because the laws of physics are constant (as far as
we can tell), astronomy can also explain how the universe behaved in
the past and can propose a limited number of possible scenarios for
its future (see FAQ entry about Big Bang).  Everyday life applications
of astronomy include calculations/predictions of sunrise/sunset times,
moon phases, tides, eclipse locations, comet visibility, encounters
between various celestial bodies (e.g., SL9 comet crash onto Jupiter
in 1994), spacecraft trajectories, etc.

Astrology on the other hand claims it can predict what will happen to
individuals (or guess what is happening to them), or to mankind, based
on such things as solar system configurations and birth dates.  Common
applications include horoscopes and such.  Regardless of whether there
is scientific support for astrology, its goal and methods are clearly
distinct from those of astronomy.

User Contributions:

1
Keith Phemister
Sep 13, 2024 @ 11:23 pm
Copied from above: If the Universe were infinitely old, infinite in extent, and filled
with stars, then every direction you looked would eventually end on
the surface of a star, and the whole sky would be as bright as the
surface of the Sun.
Why would anyone assume this? Certainly, we have directions where we look that are dark because something that does not emit light (is not a star) is between us and the light. A close example is in our own solar system. When we look at the Sun (a star) during a solar eclipse the Moon blocks the light. When we look at the inner planets of our solar system (Mercury and Venus) as they pass between us and the Sun, do we not get the same effect, i.e. in the direction of the planet we see no light from the Sun? Those planets simply look like dark spots on the Sun.
Olbers' paradox seems to assume that only stars exist in the universe, but what about the planets? Aren't there more planets than stars, thus more obstructions to light than sources of light?
What may be more interesting is why can we see certain stars seemingly continuously. Are there no planets or other obstructions between them and us? Or is the twinkle in stars just caused by the movement of obstructions across the path of light between the stars and us? I was always told the twinkle defines a star while the steady light reflected by our planets defines a planet. Is that because the planets of our solar system don't have the obstructions between Earth and them to cause a twinkle effect?
9-14-2024 KP

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Top Document: [sci.astro] General (Astronomy Frequently Asked Questions) (2/9)
Previous Document: B.04 What is the resolution of a telescope?
Next Document: B.06 Is there scientific evidence for/against astrology?

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